Questions for: The Parliament

• Q: Formation of Parliament is completed by [UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2002]
  
  A) Only House of the People

  B) House of the People and Prime Minister

  C) House of the People, Council of States and Prime Minister

  D) House of the People, Council of States and President
  Answer: D
  Explanation:
• Q: Indian Parliament consists of [UPPCS (Mains) 2004, 2011 UPPCS (Pre) 2012]
  
  A) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha

  B) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and Prime Minister

  C) Speaker and Lok Sabha

  D) President and both the House of Parliament
  Answer: D
  Explanation:
• Q: Maximum how many times the Parliament has to meet in a year? [UPPCS (Pre) 1995]
  
  A) Once

  B) Twice

  C) Thrice

  D) Four times
  Answer: B
  Explanation:
• Q: What should be the interval between the two consecutive sessions of Parliament? [39th BPSC (Pre) 1994]
  
  A) Four months

  B) Six months

  C) 1 year

  D) Fixed by the President
  Answer: B
  Explanation:
• Q: Which of the following constitute the Indian Parliament? [UPPCS (Pre)(Re. Exam) 2015 Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2012]
  
  A) President, Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha

  B) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and Prime Minister

  C) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and Minister for Parliamentary Affairs

  D) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and Parliament Secretariat
  Answer: A
  Explanation:
• Q: Who/which of the following is not an integral part of Parliament? [Karnataka PSC (Pre) 2017 UPPCS (Mains) 2013]
  
  A) President

  B) Vice-President

  C) Lok Sabha

  D) Rajya Sabha
  Answer: B
  Explanation:
• Q: The membership of a Parliament/Legislative Assembly’s membership may be terminated if he remains absent without informing to respective House for a term of [Tamil Nadu PSC (Pre) 2018 MPPCS (Pre) 1992]
  
  A) 60 days

  B) 90 days

  C) 120 days

  D) 150 days
  Answer: A
  Explanation:
• Q: For the first time, a MP/MLA was disqualified from the membership on the ground of remaining absent from sixty consecutive meetings of the House without the permission. He was a member of [UPPCS (Mains) 2004]
  
  A) Council of States

  B) House of People

  C) Punjab Legislative Assembly

  D) Rajasthan Legislative Assembly
  Answer: A
  Explanation:
• Q: Which one of the following provisions deals with the privileges and immunities of the Members of Parliament under the Constitution of India? [Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2011]
  
  A) Article 104

  B) Article 105

  C) Article 82

  D) Article 117
  Answer: B
  Explanation:
• Q: Which one of the following is not a collective privilege of the members of Parliament? [UPPCS (Pre) 2017]
  
  A) Freedom of debates and proceedings

  B) The Rights to regulate the internal matters of the Parliament

  C) Freedom from attendance as Witness

  D) The privilegeds of excluding strangers from the house
  Answer: C
  Explanation:
• Q: Privilege motion can be raised against a Minister when he [Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2011]
  
  A) Loses confidence in the Government

  B) Absents himself for a long time

  C) Withholds facts of a case or given distorted versions of facts

  D) Limit value
  Answer: C
  Explanation:
• Q: Who among the following has the right to vote in the elections to both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha? [IAS (Pre) 1995]
  
  A) Elected members of the Lower House of the Parliament

  B) Elected members of the Upper House of the Parliament

  C) Elected members of the Upper House of the state Legislature

  D) Elected members of the Lower House of the state Legislature
  Answer: D
  Explanation:
• Q: Which one of the following statements is correct? [IAS (Pre) 2003]
  
  A) Only the Rajya Sabha and not the Lok Sabha can have nominated members

  B) There is a Constitutional provision for nominating two members belonging to the Anglo-Indian community to the Rajya Sabha

  C) There is no Constitutional bar for nominated members to be appointed as a Union Minister

  D) A nominated member can vote both in the Presidential and Vice-Presidential elections
  Answer: C
  Explanation:
• Q: Parliament may legislate on any subject of State List when [UPPCS (Pre) 2012]
  
  A) There is assent of President

  B) Resolution thereof has been passed by State

  C) In any situation

  D) General permission of State Legislative Assembly has been received
  Answer: B
  Explanation:
• Q: The Parliament can make law for the whole or any part of India for implementing International Treaties. [UPPCS (Pre) 2006 IAS (Pre) 2000]
  
  A) With the consent of all the States

  B) With the consent of majority of States

  C) With the consent of the States concerned

  D) Without the consent of any State
  Answer: D
  Explanation:
• Q: Who can legislate on the subjects which are not included in any of the lists of subjects given in the Constitution? [UPPCS (Pre)(Re. Exam) 2015]
  
  A) Supreme Court

  B) Parliament

  C) State Legislature

  D) Regional Councils
  Answer: B
  Explanation:
• Q: Which one of the following statement is correct? [IAS (Pre) 1994]
  
  A) All the members of Council of States are elected by State Legislative Assemblies

  B) As the Vice-President is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, only a member of the Rajya Sabha can contest for the office of the Vice-President

  C) A point difference between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha is that while a candidate to Lok Sabha can contest from any State in India, a candidate to the Rajya Sabha should ordinarily be a resident of the State from where he is contesting

  D) The Constitution of India explicitly prohibits the appointment of a nominated member of the Rajya Sabha to the post of minister
  Answer: C
  Explanation:
• Q: Which of the following procedures will enable the adoption of a Money Bill that was once passed by the Lok Sabha but was amended by the Rajya Sabha? [UPPCS (Pre) 1994]
  
  A) It will go to the President

  B) The Lok Sabha will have pass it with 2/3rd majority of the members sitting and voting

  C) A Joint session of the two Houses will be called

  D) It will be deemed to have been passed if the Lok Sabha passes it again either by accepting or rejecting the amendments
  Answer: D
  Explanation:
• Q: The Speaker can ask a member of the House to stop speaking and let another member speak. This phenomenon is known as [IAS (Pre) 2000]
  
  A) Decorum

  B) Crossing the floor

  C) Interpellation

  D) Yielding the floor
  Answer: D
  Explanation:
• Q: ‘Zero Hour’ is the contribution of which country to the Parliamentary System? [UPPCS (Spl)(Mains) 2004]
  
  A) India

  B) America

  C) Britain

  D) Switzerland
  Answer: A
  Explanation:
• Q: What could be the maximum time limit of ‘Zero Hour’ in the Lok Sabha? [UPPCS (Mains) 2007]
  
  A) 30 minutes

  B) One hour

  C) Indefinite period

  D) Two hours
  Answer: B
  Explanation:
• Q: Time of zero hour in Parliament is [UPPCS (Pre)(Re. Exam) 2015]
  
  A) 9 am to 10 am

  B) 10 am to 11 am

  C) 11 am to 12 noon

  D) 12 noon to 1:00 pm
  Answer: D
  Explanation:
• Q: Zero Hour in political jargon refers to [45th BPSC (Pre) 2001]
  
  A) Day when no business in Parliament is done

  B) Suspended motion

  C) Adjourned time

  D) Question-answer session
  Answer: D
  Explanation:
• Q: The Parliament can make any law for whole or any part of India for implementing international treaties [IAS (Pre) 2013]
  
  A) With the consent of all the States

  B) With the consent of the majority of States

  C) With the consent of the States concerned

  D) Without the consent of any State
  Answer: D
  Explanation:
• Q: Under which Article of the Indian Constitution, the Parliament can make laws on State List subject for giving effect to international agreements? [UPPCS (Pre) 2016 UPPCS (Mains) 2016]
  
  A) Article 249

  B) Article 250

  C) Article 252

  D) Article 253
  Answer: D
  Explanation:
• Q: Which one of the following statements is correct? [UPPCS (Mains) 2011]
  
  A) A Money Bill is introduced in the Rajya Sabha

  B) A Money Bill can be introduced in either of the two Houses of the Parliament

  C) A Money Bill cannot be introduced in the Lok Sabha

  D) A Money Bill is introduced in the Lok Sabha
  Answer: D
  Explanation:
• Q: A Money Bill passed by Lok Sabha is deemed to have been passed by Rajya Sabha also when no action is taken by the Rajya Sabha within [UPPCS (Pre) 2016 Punjab PSC (Pre) 2019]
  
  A) 10 days

  B) 14 days

  C) 15 days

  D) 16 days
  Answer: B
  Explanation:
• Q: Rajya Sabha can delay the Finance Bill sent for its consideration by Lok Sabha for a maximum period of [UPPCS (Pre) 2006]
  
  A) One month

  B) One year

  C) Seven days

  D) Fourteen days
  Answer: D
  Explanation:
• Q: In how many days Rajya Sabha has to return Money Bill to Lok Sabha? [UP Lower (Pre) 2009 UP Lower Sub. (Mains) 2013 UPRO/ARO (Mains) 2014]
  
  A) Within 12 days

  B) Within 14 days

  C) Within 16 days

  D) Within 18 days
  Answer: B
  Explanation:
• Q: Which one of the following statements is correct? [UPPSC (GIC) 2010 UPPCS (Pre) 2012]
  
  A) Money Bill is introduced in Rajya Sabha

  B) Money Bill is introduced in Lok Sabha

  C) It can be introduced in either of the Houses of the Parliament

  D) It cannot be introduced in Lok Sabha
  Answer: B
  Explanation:
• Q: When a bill is referred to a joint sitting of both the Houses of the Parliament, it has to be passed by [IAS (Pre) 2015]
  
  A) A simple majority of members present and voting

  B) Three-fourth majority of members present and voting

  C) Two-third majority of the Houses

  D) Absolute majority of the Houses
  Answer: A
  Explanation:
• Q: Who presides over the joint session of both the Houses of the Parliament? [UPPCS (Pre) 2014 UPPCS (Mains) 2010 Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2012]
  
  A) Speaker

  B) Vice-President

  C) President

  D) Prime Minister
  Answer: A
  Explanation:
• Q: Who among the following is authorised to preside over the joint session of the Parliament? [UPPCS (Mains) 2013, 2006 UP Lower Sub. (Mains) 2013 UPRO/ARO (Mains) 2013 Uttarakhand UDA/LDA (Pre) 2007]
  
  A) President of India

  B) Vice-President of India

  C) Prime Minister of India

  D) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
  Answer: D
  Explanation:
• Q: The 1st Joint meeting of both Houses of the Indian Parliament was held in connection with [UP Lower Sub. (Spl) (Pre) 2004]
  
  A) Dowry Abolition Bill

  B) Hindu Code Bill

  C) Bank Nationalisation Bill

  D) Gold Control Bill
  Answer: A
  Explanation:
• Q: The joint sitting of both Houses of Indian Parliament is held in connection with [Goa PSC (Pre) 2018 UPPCS (Pre) 1997]
  
  A) Constitution Amendment Bill

  B) Money Bill

  C) Ordinary Bill

  D) Election of the Vice-President of India
  Answer: C
  Explanation:
• Q: A legislative bill may be introduced in which House of Parliament? [MPPCS (Pre) 2010]
  
  A) Lok Sabha

  B) Rajya Sabha

  C) Either House of Parliament

  D) None of the above
  Answer: C
  Explanation:
• Q: Who has the right to issue money from the Consolidated Fund of India? [Kerala PSC (Pre) 2018 UPPCS (Pre) 2000]
  
  A) Comptroller and Auditor General

  B) Finance Minister of India

  C) Authorized Minister

  D) Parliament
  Answer: D
  Explanation:
• Q: Which one of the following expenditure is not charged on the Consolidated Fund of India? [UPPCS (Mains) 2011]
  
  A) Salary and allowances of the Chief Justice of India

  B) Salary and allowances of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India

  C) Salary and allowances of the Prime Minister of India

  D) Salary and allowances of the Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission
  Answer: C
  Explanation:
• Q: Which one of the following is not a mandatory expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India? [Gujarat PSC (Pre) 2019 UPPCS (Spl)(Mains) 2004]
  
  A) Debt Charges for which Government of India is liable

  B) Salary and Pension of the members of the Election Commission of India

  C) Pension payable to Judges of High Courts

  D) Allowances of Deputy Chairman of Council of States
  Answer: B
  Explanation:
• Q: Which one of the following expenditures is not charged on the Consolidated Fund of India? [UPPCS (Pre) 2006]
  
  A) Salary and allowances of the President of India

  B) Salary and allowances of the Vice-President of India

  C) Salary and allowances of the Justices of the Supreme Court of India

  D) Salary and allowances of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha
  Answer: B
  Explanation:
• Q: The authorization for the withdrawal of funds from the Consolidated Fund of India must come from [Karnataka PSC (Pre) 2017 IAS (Pre) 2011]
  
  A) The President of India

  B) The Parliament of India

  C) The Prime Minister of India

  D) The Union Finance Minister
  Answer: B
  Explanation:
• Q: How can the President spend from Contingency Fund? [Haryana PSC (Pre) 2019 UPPCS (Pre) 1991]
  
  A) In time of natural calamity

  B) After Authorization of Parliament

  C) Before Authorization of Parliament

  D) Cannot spend
  Answer: C
  Explanation:
• Q: All revenues received by the Union Government by way of taxes and other receipts for the conduct of Government business are credited to the [IAS (Pre) 2011]
  
  A) Contingency Fund of India

  B) Public Account

  C) Consolidated Fund of India

  D) Deposits and Advances Fund
  Answer: C
  Explanation:
• Q: Money Bill has been defined by the Constitution under Article. [UPPCS (Pre) 2000]
  
  A) 109

  B) 110

  C) 111

  D) Both (B) and (C)
  Answer: B
  Explanation:
• Q: Who among the following decides whether a particular Bill is a Money Bill? [UPPCS (Mains) 2014 Himachal Pradesh PSC (Pre) 2019]
  
  A) President

  B) Prime Minister

  C) Speaker of Lok Sabha

  D) The Cabinet
  Answer: C
  Explanation:
• Q: Which one of the following statements about a Money Bill is not correct? [IAS (Pre) 2000]
  
  A) A Money Bill can be tabled in either House of Parliament

  B) The Speaker of Lok Sabha is the final authority to decide whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not

  C) The Rajya Sabha must return a Money Bill passed by the Lok Sabha and sent it for consideration within 14 days

  D) The President cannot return a Money Bill to the Lok Sabha for reconsideration
  Answer: A
  Explanation:
• Q: A Money Bill under the Constitution of India is tabled in the [UPPCS (Mains) 2015]
  
  A) Rajya Sabha

  B) Public Accounts Committee

  C) Lok Sabha

  D) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha simultaneously
  Answer: C
  Explanation:
• Q: Of the following statements, which one is not correct? [53rd to 55th BPSC (Pre) 2011]
  
  A) The Rajya Sabha is powerless in money matters

  B) Money Bill is introduced in the Rajya Sabha

  C) The Rajya Sabha has to pass the Money Bill within 14 days after it has been passed by the Lok Sabha

  D) The Rajya Sabha may pass or return the Money Bill with some recommendations to the Lok Sabha
  Answer: B
  Explanation:
• Q: Which one of the following subject is not included in the provisions of the Money Bills? [UP UDA/LDA (Pre) 2010]
  
  A) Provision regarding taxes

  B) Provision regarding borrowings

  C) Provision regarding custody of the Consolidated and Contingency Funds

  D) Provision for imposition of fines or penalties
  Answer: D
  Explanation:
• Q: A Bill which merely involves expenditure and does not include any of the matters specified in Article 110 can be [UPPCS (Mains) 2016]
  
  A) Initiated only in Lok Sabha

  B) Initiated in either House of Parliament

  C) Initiated only in Rajya Sabha

  D) Initiated only in joint session of both House of Parliament
  Answer: B
  Explanation:
• Q: Which one of the following statements is not correct with regard to control of Parliament on a budget? [IAS (Pre) 2009]
  
  A) Parliament does not have any role in the creation of the budget

  B) Parliament has the power to move on the affected expenditure on the Consolidated Fund

  C) Parliament has no power to impose a tax without the recommendation of the President

  D) Parliament has no power to increase any tax without the recommendation of the President
  Answer: B
  Explanation:
• Q: Which of the following is responsible for preparation and presentation of union budget in the Parliament? [IAS (Pre) 2010]
  
  A) Department of Revenue

  B) Department of Economic Affairs

  C) Department of Financial Services

  D) Department of Expenditure
  Answer: B
  Explanation:
• Q: If the annual Union Budget is not passed by the Lok Sabha ..... . [IAS (Pre) 2011]
  
  A) The Budget is modified and presented again

  B) The Budget is referred to the Rajya Sabha for suggestions

  C) The Union Finance Minister is asked to resign

  D) The Prime Minister submits the resignation of Council of Ministers
  Answer: D
  Explanation:
• Q: If budget is disclosed before introducing in the Legislative Assembly, what will happen? [Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2016]
  
  A) Council of Ministers will have to resign

  B) Chief Minister will have to resign

  C) Finance Minister will have to resign

  D) All of the above
  Answer: C
  Explanation:
• Q: Under which of the following taxes the total amount payable by an individual is limited by the Constitution? [UPPCS (Mains) 2004, 2002]
  
  A) Corporation tax

  B) Estate Duty

  C) Succession Duty

  D) Tax on profession, trade and callings
  Answer: D
  Explanation:
• Q: Economic Survey is presented in Parliament every year [UPPCS (Mains) 2004]
  
  A) Before presentation of the Budget for the coming year

  B) After presentation of the Budget for the coming year

  C) After presentation of Finance Bill

  D) And has no relation with presentation of the Budget
  Answer: A
  Explanation:
• Q: ‘Votes on Account’ permits Union Government to [UPPCS (Mains) 2004]
  
  A) Go for public loan

  B) Borrow money from the Reserve Bank of India

  C) Give grant-in-aid to States

  D) Withdraw money from the Consolidated Fund of India for specific period
  Answer: D
  Explanation:
• Q: Vote on Account is meant for [Tripura PSC (Pre) 2018 60th to 62nd BPSC (Pre) 2016]
  
  A) Vote on the report of CAG

  B) To meet unforeseen expenditure

  C) Appropriating funds pending passing of budget

  D) Budget
  Answer: C
  Explanation:
• Q: Votes on Account in the Parliament is necessary [Arunachal Pradesh PSC (Pre) 2019 UP Lower Sub. (Spl)(Pre) 2008]
  
  A) When Government expenditure is more than Government revenue

  B) For financing big projects in which huge amount of money is required

  C) When regular budget is not expected to be passed in time

  D) None of the above
  Answer: C
  Explanation:
• Q: Estimates of expenditure are submitted to the Parliament of India in the form of [Jharkhand PCS (Pre) 2013]
  
  A) Adhoc Funds

  B) Excess Grants

  C) Supplementary Grants

  D) Demands for Grants
  Answer: D
  Explanation:
• Q: Which one of the following statements is correct regarding submission of Money Bill? [UP UDA/LDA (Pre) 2006]
  
  A) The Finance Bill is presented in Rajya Sabha

  B) It can be presented in either House of Parliament

  C) It cannot be presented in Lok Sabha

  D) It is presented in Lok Sabha
  Answer: D
  Explanation:
• Q: The Finance Bill of Indian Government is presented in [MPPCS (Pre) 2010]
  
  A) Upper House

  B) Legislative Assembly

  C) Legislative Council

  D) Lower House
  Answer: D
  Explanation:
• Q: Which of the following proposals is related to the Union Budget? [UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2002]
  
  A) Censure motion

  B) Calling attention

  C) Cut motion

  D) Adjournment motion
  Answer: C
  Explanation:
• Q: According to the Law enacted by Parliament in December 1989, the legal age for a citizen to become major is [UPPCS (Pre) 2000]
  
  A) 23 years

  B) 22 years

  C) 20 years

  D) 18 years
  Answer: D
  Explanation:
• Q: The Consultative Committee of Members of Parliament for Railway Zones is constituted by which of the following? [MPPCS (Pre) 2012 IAS (Pre) 2005]
  
  A) President of India

  B) Ministry of Railways

  C) Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs

  D) Ministry of Transport
  Answer: C
  Explanation:
• Q: With reference to Indian Polity, which one of the following statements is correct? [IAS (Pre) 2002]
  
  A) Planning Commission is accountable to Parliament

  B) President can make ordinance only when either of the two Houses of Parliament is not in session

  C) The minimum age prescribed for appointment as a Judge of the Supreme Court in 40 years

  D) National development Council is constituted of Union Finance Minister and the Chief Ministers of all the States
  Answer: D
  Explanation:
• Q: Which one of the following is the largest Committee of the Parliament? [IAS (Pre) 2014]
  
  A) The Committee on Public Accounts

  B) The Committee on Estimates

  C) The Committee on Public Undertakings

  D) The Committee on Petitions
  Answer: B
  Explanation:
• Q: Tenure of the members of the Estimates Committee is of [UPPCS (Mains) 2016]
  
  A) Two years

  B) One year

  C) Three years

  D) Four years
  Answer: B
  Explanation:
• Q: Which of the following is not a tool of Parliamentary control over Public expenditures? [Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2005]
  
  A) Public Accounts Committee

  B) Comptroller and Auditor General of India

  C) Estimates Committee

  D) Committee on Public Undertakings
  Answer: B
  Explanation:
• Q: The members of Standing Committee of Parliament are taken from the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha in which ratio? [UPPCS (Mains) 2013]
  
  A) Two and one respectively

  B) Three and one respectively

  C) Four and one respectively

  D) In equal numbers from both the Houses
  Answer: A
  Explanation:
• Q: The Provision for the Calling Attention Notices has restricted the scope of which of the following? [UPPCS (Pre) 2010]
  
  A) Short duration discussion

  B) Question Hour

  C) Adjournment Motion

  D) Zero Hour
  Answer: C
  Explanation:
• Q: In the Parliament of India, the purpose of an adjournment motion is [IAS (Pre) 2012]
  
  A) To allow a discussion on a definite matter of urgent public importance

  B) To let opposition members collect information from the ministers

  C) To allow a reduction of specific amount in demand for grant

  D) To postpone the proceedings to check the inappropriate or violent behaviour on the part of some members
  Answer: A
  Explanation:
• Q: The Secretariat of Parliament of India is [MPPCS (Pre) 2010]
  
  A) Under Minister of Parliamentary Affairs

  B) Under President

  C) Independent of the Government

  D) Under the Supreme Court
  Answer: C
  Explanation:
• Q: Sovereignty of Indian Parliament is restricted by [UPPCS (Mains) 2004]
  
  A) Powers of the President of India

  B) Judicial review

  C) Leader of the opposition

  D) Powers of the Prime Minister of India
  Answer: B
  Explanation:
• Q: The Golden Jubilee of Indian Parliament was celebrated on [UPPCS (Mains) 2008]
  
  A) 35431

  B) 15-08-1997

  C) 26-01-2002

  D) 13-05-2002
  Answer: D
  Explanation:
• Q: Who was the Nationalist leader to be elected as Speaker of Central Legislative Assembly in 1925? [UPPCS (Pre) 2007]
  
  A) Motilal Nehru

  B) Vitthalbhai Patel

  C) Vallabhbhai Patel

  D) C.R. Das
  Answer: B
  Explanation:
• Q: In which of the following Committees there is no representation of Rajya Sabha? [UPPCS (Pre) 2010]
  
  A) Public Accounts Committee

  B) Committee on Public Undertakings

  C) Estimates Committee

  D) Committee on Government Assurances
  Answer: C
  Explanation:
• Q: Public Accounts Committee presents its report to [UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2002]
  
  A) Parliament

  B) The President

  C) Prime Minister

  D) Finance Minister
  Answer: C
  Explanation:
• Q: The Public Accounts Committee submits its reports to [53rd to 55th BPSC (Pre) 2011 Jharkhand PCS (Pre) 2011]
  
  A) The Comptroller and Auditor General

  B) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha

  C) The Minister of Parliamentary Affairs

  D) The President of India
  Answer: B
  Explanation:
• Q: The report of Public Accounts Committee is presented in the [UPPCS (Mains) 2015]
  
  A) Lok Sabha

  B) President’s Office

  C) Finance Ministry

  D) Prime Minister’s Office
  Answer: A
  Explanation:
• Q: The main function of the Accounts Committee of Parliament is [MPPCS (Pre) 1993]
  
  A) To examine the financial account of the government and report of Comptroller and Auditor General

  B) To appoint on higher posts of public sector units

  C) To examine the policy according to financial provision

  D) None of the above
  Answer: A
  Explanation:
• Q: Public Accounts Committee has the following members. Lok Sabha Rajya Sabha Total [UPRO/ARO (Mains) 2014]
  
  A) 11 05 16

  B) 15 07 22

  C) 10 05 15

  D) 17 10 27
  Answer: B
  Explanation:
• Q: Who nominates the Chairman of the Public Accounts Committee of Indian Parliament? [UPPCS (Pre) 2014, others]
  
  A) The Speaker of Lok Sabha

  B) The Prime Minister

  C) The President

  D) The Chairman of Rajya Sabha
  Answer: A
  Explanation:
• Q: Members of the Rajya Sabha are not associated with: 1. Public Account Committee 2. Estimates Committee 3. Committee on Public Undertakings [UPPCS (Spl)(Mains) 2008]
  
  A) 1 and 2

  B) Only 3

  C) Only 2

  D) 1 and 3
  Answer: C
  Explanation:
• Q: Estimates Committee is constituted from the members of [UPPCS (Mains) 2010]
  
  A) Both the Houses

  B) The Rajya Sabha

  C) The Lok Sabha

  D) None of the above
  Answer: C
  Explanation:
• Q: Which one of the following is a Standing Committee of Parliament? [UPPCS (Mains) 2015]
  
  A) Committee on Public Accounts

  B) Estimates Committee

  C) Committee on Public Undertakings

  D) All of the above
  Answer: D
  Explanation:
• Q: On which of the following, a Parliamentary Committee has not been set up? [UPPCS (Mains) 2012]
  
  A) Public Undertakings

  B) Government Assurances

  C) Estimates

  D) Welfare of Minorities
  Answer: D
  Explanation:
• Q: The Joint Parliamentary Committee set up for probing the 2G spectrum issue consists of [UPPCS (Mains) 2010]
  
  A) 15 members from each of the two Houses

  B) 20 members from Lok Sabha and 10 from Rajya Sabha

  C) 18 members from Lok Sabha and 12 members from Rajya Sabha

  D) 16 members from Lok Sabha and 14 members from Rajya Sabha
  Answer: B
  Explanation:
• Q: The Joint Parliamentary Committee examining the 2G Scam is headed by [UPPCS (Mains) 2010, RAS/RTS (Pre) 2012]
  
  A) Murli Manohar Joshi

  B) P.C. Chacko

  C) A.B. Vardhan

  D) Sitaram Yechuri
  Answer: B
  Explanation:
• Q: In what way does the Indian Parliament exercise control over the administration? [IAS (Pre) 2001]
  
  A) Through Parliamentary Committees

  B) Through Advisory Committees of various ministries

  C) By making the administrators send periodic reports

  D) By compelling the executive to issue writs
  Answer: A
  Explanation:
• Q: Parliament Composition: House of the People has 524 State reps + 2 Anglo-Indians + X. What is X? [IAS (Pre) 1995]
  
  A) Ministers not members of Parliament

  B) Not more than 20 nominated members

  C) Not more than 26 representatives of Union Territories

  D) The Attorney General
  Answer: C
  Explanation:
• Q: Which of the following is/are stated in the Constitution of India? 1. President not member of either House 2. Parliament = President + 2 Houses [IAS (Pre) 1997]
  
  A) Neither 1 nor 2

  B) Both 1 and 2

  C) Only 1

  D) Only 2
  Answer: B
  Explanation:
• Q: The Parliament of India consists of? [UPPCS (Pre) 2014]
  
  A) 1, 2 and 3

  B) 2 and 3

  C) 2, 3 and 4

  D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
  Answer: A
  Explanation:
• Q: The Officers of the Parliament include 1. Speaker, Lok Sabha 2. Deputy Speaker, Lok Sabha 3. Secretary-General, Lok Sabha 4. Chairman of the Rajya Sabha Select the correct answer from the codes given below.
  
  A) 1 and 2

  B) 1, 2 and 3

  C) 1, 3 and 4

  D) All the four
  Answer: D
  Explanation:
• Q: Federal Parliament may legislate on any subject of State List. 1. To Implement International Agreements. 2. By consent of State. 3. When Proclamation of Emergency is in operation. 4. In national interest and after a resolution passed by state legislative assembly with 2/3 majority. Choose the correct option. [UPPCS (Mains) 2005]
  
  A) 1, 2 and 3

  B) 2, 3 and 4

  C) 1, 2 and 4

  D) All of these
  Answer: D
  Explanation:
• Q: The Indian Parliament cannot legislate on a subject of state-list unless 1. The President of India directs it to do so. 2. The Rajya Sabha passes a resolution that it is necessary to do so in national interest. 3. The Speaker of the Vidhan Sabha certifies that the legislation is necessary. 4. There is a national emergency. [UPPCS (Mains) 2005]
  
  A) 1, 2 and 3

  B) 2, 3 and 4

  C) 1 and 3

  D) 2 and 4
  Answer: D
  Explanation:
• Q: Joint Session of both the Houses of Parliament is concerned. 1. For the election of the President of India 2. For the election of the Vice-President of India 3. To pass the Bill relating to the amendment of Constitution 4. To discuss and pass such a Bill where both Houses have different opinion [40th BPSC (Pre) 1995]
  
  A) 1 and 4

  B) 3 and 4

  C) 1 and 2

  D) Only 4
  Answer: D
  Explanation:
• Q: Consider the following: 1. The joint sitting of both Houses of Parliament in India is sanctioned under Article 108. 2. The first joint sitting was held in 1961. 3. The second was to pass the Banking Service Commission (Repeal) Bill. [IAS (Pre) 2003]
  
  A) 1 and 2

  B) 2 and 3

  C) 1 and 3

  D) 1, 2 and 3
  Answer: D
  Explanation:
• Q: A deadlock between the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha calls for a joint sitting during the passage of 1. Ordinary Legislation 2. Money Bill 3. Constitution Amendment Bill [IAS (Pre) 2012]
  
  A) Only 1

  B) 2 and 3

  C) 1 and 3

  D) 1, 2 and 3
  Answer: A
  Explanation:
• Q: With reference to Parliament of India: 1. A private member’s bill is introduced by someone nominated by the President. 2. Recently, a private member’s bill was passed for the first time in Parliament’s history. [IAS (Pre) 2017]
  
  A) Only 1

  B) Only 2

  C) Both 1 and 2

  D) Neither 1 nor 2
  Answer: D
  Explanation:
• Q: Which is correct? 1. A Bill pending in Lok Sabha lapses on prorogation. 2. A Bill pending in Rajya Sabha and not passed by Lok Sabha does not lapse on dissolution of Lok Sabha. [IAS (Pre) 2016]
  
  A) Only 1

  B) Only 2

  C) Both 1 and 2

  D) Neither 1 nor 2
  Answer: B
  Explanation:
• Q: Consider the following: 1. Chairman and Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha are not members of that House. 2. Nominated MPs cannot vote for President, but can vote for Vice-President. [IAS (Pre) 2013]
  
  A) Only 1

  B) Only 2

  C) Both 1 and 2

  D) Neither 1 nor 2
  Answer: B
  Explanation:
• Q: Union Government statements: 1. Dept of Revenue prepares Union Budget. 2. No money withdrawn from Consolidated Fund without Parliament’s okay. 3. Public Account disbursements also need Parliament’s approval. [IAS (Pre) 2015]
  
  A) Only 1 and 2

  B) Only 2 and 3

  C) Only 2

  D) 1, 2 and 3
  Answer: C
  Explanation:
• Q: Methods of Parliamentary control over finance: 1. Place Finance Statement. 2. Appropriation Bill for withdrawal. 3. Supplementary grants & vote-on-account. 4. Mid-year review by Budget Office. 5. Finance Bill in Parliament. [IAS (Pre) 2012]
  
  A) 1, 2, 3 and 5

  B) 1, 2 and 4

  C) 3, 4, and 5

  D) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
  Answer: A
  Explanation:
• Q: What is the difference between ‘Vote-on-Account’ and ‘interim budget’? 1. Vote-on-Account is for stable govt; Interim budget for caretaker govt. 2. Vote-on-Account is only expenditure; Interim budget includes receipts too. [IAS (Pre) 2011]
  
  A) Only 1

  B) Only 2

  C) Both 1 and 2

  D) Neither 1 nor 2
  Answer: B
  Explanation:
• Q: The stages in the normal financial legislation include: 1. Presentation of Budget 2. Discussion 3. Passing Appropriation Bill 4. Vote on Account 5. Passing Finance Bill. Choose correct code. [UPPCS (Mains) 2010, 2005]
  
  A) 1, 2 and 3

  B) 1, 3 and 4

  C) 1, 2, 3 and 4

  D) 1, 2, 3 and 5
  Answer: D
  Explanation:
• Q: Prior sanction of President is required before introducing Bill on: 1. New State 2. Affecting taxation in which states are interested 3. Altering boundaries 4. Money Bill [UPPCS (Mains) 2005]
  
  A) 1, 2 and 3

  B) 2, 3 and 4

  C) 1, 2 and 4

  D) All of these
  Answer: D
  Explanation:
• Q: Choose the correct from the following: 1. Right to Property not a FR now. 2. Rajya Sabha can stop a Financial Bill. 3. Preamble’s “Secular, Democratic” added by 42nd Amendment. 4. Speaker resolves Parliamentary disputes. [UPPCS (Mains) 2007]
  
  A) 1 and 2

  B) 1 and 3

  C) 1 and 4

  D) 2 and 3
  Answer: A
  Explanation:
• Q: What is correct about starred question? 1. Oral answer 2. Written answer 3. Supplementary questions allowed 4. Not allowed 5. Can be discussed 6. Speaker controls answer [Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2014]
  
  A) 2 and 4

  B) 1 and 3

  C) 5 and 6

  D) 3 and 5
  Answer: B
  Explanation:
• Q: Parliament controls Council of Ministers through: 1. Adjournment motion 2. Question Hour 3. Supplementary Questions [IAS (Pre) 2017]
  
  A) Only 1

  B) Only 2 and 3

  C) Only 1 and 3

  D) 1, 2 and 3
  Answer: D
  Explanation:
• Q: Union Government: 1. Ministries created by PM on advice of Cabinet Secretary 2. Ministers assigned by President on advice of PM [IAS (Pre) 2009]
  
  A) Only 1

  B) Only 2

  C) Both 1 and 2

  D) Neither 1 nor 2
  Answer: B
  Explanation:
• Q: Public Accounts Committee: 1. Chairman appointed by Speaker 2. Includes LS, RS and eminent persons [IAS (Pre) 2007]
  
  A) Only 1

  B) Only 2

  C) Both 1 and 2

  D) Neither 1 nor 2
  Answer: A
  Explanation:
• Q: Committees & Ministry: 1. Estimates Committee only from LS 2. MoPA under Cabinet Committee 3. MoPA nominates MPs to various bodies [IAS (Pre) 2003]
  
  A) 1 and 2

  B) 2 and 3

  C) 1 and 3

  D) 1, 2 and 3
  Answer: D
  Explanation:
• Q: Parliamentary Committee on Public Accounts: 1. Not more than 25 LS Members 2. Scrutinizes finance & appropriation 3. Examines CAG report [IAS (Pre) 2013]
  
  A) Only 1

  B) 2 and 3

  C) Only 3

  D) All of these
  Answer: B
  Explanation:
• Q: Financial Committees of Parliament: 1. PAC 2. Estimates Committee 3. Committee on Public Undertakings [UPPCS (Mains) 2007]
  
  A) Only 1

  B) 1 and 2

  C) 1 and 3

  D) 1, 2 and 3
  Answer: D
  Explanation:
• Q: Officers of Parliament include: 1. Speaker 2. Deputy Speaker 3. Sec. Gen. LS 4. Chairman of RS [UP Lower Sub. (Pre) 2013]
  
  A) Only 1 and 2

  B) Only 1, 2 and 3

  C) Only 1, 3 and 4

  D) All the four
  Answer: D
  Explanation:
• Q: Assertion (A): Under Article 368, the Parliament can amend any part of the Constitution. Reason (R): The Parliament is the Supreme Legislative body elected by the People of India. [UPPCS (Pre) 2015]
  
  A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

  B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

  C) (A) is true, but (R) is false

  D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
  Answer: A
  Explanation:
• Q: Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer. (a) Public Accounts Committee, (b) Committee on Petitions, (c) Joint Committee on Stock Market Scam, (d) Departmental Committees [UPPCS (Mains) 2005]
  
  A) 1 4 3 2

  B) 2 3 4 1

  C) 3 4 1 2

  D) 4 2 1 3
  Answer: C
  Explanation:
• Q: Offences are tried under the Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955 by [MPPCS (Pre) 2014]
  
  A) Sessions Court

  B) Judicial Magistrate First Class

  C) Judicial Magistrate Second Class

  D) Chief Judicial Magistrate
  Answer: B
  Explanation:
• Q: Under the Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955. All offences are [MPPCS (Pre) 2013]
  
  A) Cognizable

  B) Bailable

  C) Punishment with imprisonment and fine both

  D) Both (A) and (C)
  Answer: D
  Explanation:
• Q: In which year was Prevention of Food Adulteration Act first enacted? [Kerala PSC (Pre) 2018 / UPPCS (Mains) 2006]
  
  A) 1951

  B) 1954

  C) 1964

  D) 1956
  Answer: B
  Explanation:
• Q: All offences punishable under the Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955 are [MPPCS (Pre) 2012]
  
  A) Cognizable and Non-bailable

  B) Cognizable and Summarily Triable

  C) Non-cognizable and Bailable

  D) Non-cognizable and Compoundable
  Answer: B
  Explanation:
• Q: The Protection of Civil Rights Act extends to [MPPCS (Pre) 2012]
  
  A) The whole of India

  B) The whole of India except Scheduled areas

  C) The whole of India except J&K

  D) The whole of India except Goa, Daman and Diu
  Answer: A
  Explanation:
• Q: Who is held responsible for offences committed by Companies under the Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955? [MPPCS (Pre) 2014]
  
  A) Director

  B) Manager

  C) Secretary

  D) All of the above
  Answer: D
  Explanation:
• Q: Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched? [UPPCS (Mains) 2009]
  
  A) Hindu Marriage Act - 1955

  B) Hindu Succession Act - 1956

  C) 73rd Constitutional Amendment - Reservation of seats for women in local urban bodies

  D) Sati (Prevention) Act - 1987
  Answer: C
  Explanation:
• Q: The Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act came into force on [UP Lower Sub. (Mains) 2015]
  
  A) 20th September, 2005

  B) 30th September, 2006

  C) 10th October, 2006

  D) 26th October, 2006
  Answer: D
  Explanation:
• Q: Which of the following is not a Social Act? [UPPCS (Pre) 1991]
  
  A) MISA Act

  B) Anti-Dowry Act

  C) Protection of Civil Rights Act

  D) Prevention of Immoral Traffic Act
  Answer: A
  Explanation:
• Q: When was the Criminal Tribes Act enacted for the first time? [UPPCS (Mains) 2016]
  
  A) 1952

  B) 1924

  C) 1871

  D) 1911
  Answer: C
  Explanation:
• Q: The SC/ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989 came into force on [MPPCS (Pre) 2012]
  
  A) 1st July, 1989

  B) 30th January, 1990

  C) 30th July, 1989

  D) 1st January, 1990
  Answer: B
  Explanation:
• Q: Under which Act the SC/ST Atrocity Removal law was implemented? [MPPCS (Pre) 2015]
  
  A) Act 1990

  B) Act 1989

  C) Act 1992

  D) Act 1991
  Answer: B
  Explanation:
• Q: Who has power to make rules under SC/ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989? [MPPCS (Pre) 2016]
  
  A) The State Government

  B) The Central Government

  C) Both (A) and (B)

  D) The Supreme Court
  Answer: B
  Explanation:
• Q: Punishment under Section 3 of SC/ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989 for public servants [Goa PSC (Pre) 2017 / MPPCS (Pre) 2014]
  
  A) Three months

  B) Six months

  C) One year

  D) None of the above
  Answer: C
  Explanation:
• Q: State Govt can designate Special Court under SC/ST Act with concurrence of [Sikkim PSC (Pre) 2017 / MPPCS (Pre) 2013]
  
  A) Governor

  B) Chief Justice of High Court

  C) Session Judge of concerned district

  D) Ministry of Law
  Answer: B
  Explanation:
• Q: SC/ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act is based on which doctrine? [Karnataka PSC (Pre) 2018 / MPPCS (Pre) 2012]
  
  A) Doctrine of Severability

  B) Doctrine of Preferred Position

  C) Doctrine of Protective discrimination

  D) Doctrine of Harmonious Construction
  Answer: C
  Explanation:
• Q: Who is empowered for imposition and realization of a collective fine under SC and ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989?
  
  A) District Magistrate

  B) State Government

  C) Special Court

  D) High Court
  Answer: B
  Explanation:
• Q: In a prosecution for an offence under the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989, the court can presume which of the following?
  
  A) Abetment

  B) Common Intention

  C) Common Object

  D) All of the above
  Answer: D
  Explanation:
• Q: Which of the following Sections of the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes Act, 1989 provides for application of certain provisions of the Indian Penal Code?
  
  A) Section 12

  B) Section 10

  C) Section 6

  D) Section 8
  Answer: C
  Explanation:
• Q: Under the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989, which of the following is barred?
  
  A) Anticipatory Bail

  B) Post-arrest Bail

  C) Benefit of probation

  D) All of the above
  Answer: A
  Explanation:
• Q: Under which of the following Sections of the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes Act, 1989 is anticipatory bail prohibited?
  
  A) Section 16

  B) Section 17

  C) Section 18

  D) Section 19
  Answer: C
  Explanation:
• Q: An offence committed under the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989 shall be investigated by a police officer, not below the rank of
  
  A) Sub Inspector

  B) Inspector

  C) Deputy Superintendent

  D) Superintendent
  Answer: C
  Explanation:
• Q: Which of the following power is not provided to specified Special Court under Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act?
  
  A) Forfeiture of property of a convict of an offence

  B) To authorize a person for extra investigation other than police

  C) To remove a person from the area who is suspected of committing a crime

  D) Take measurement and photograph of a person who is suspected of committing a crime
  Answer: B
  Explanation:
• Q: Which of the following powers a Special Court cannot exercise under the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989?
  
  A) To remove a person

  B) To forfeit the property

  C) To take measurement of a person

  D) To impose collective fine
  Answer: D
  Explanation:
• Q: In a prosecution for an offence under the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989, the accused in his defence cannot take the plea that
  
  A) The Act was done in exercise of the right of private defence

  B) He also belongs to the caste as that of the victim

  C) The Act causes such a slight harm which could not be a subject of the complaint

  D) Both (A) and (C)
  Answer: A
  Explanation:
• Q: A Court of Session specified as Special Court to try the offences under the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act for the purpose of providing
  
  A) Speedy trial

  B) Time bound trial

  C) Special protection to victims

  D) All of the above
  Answer: C
  Explanation:
• Q: Under which one of the following Sections of the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes Rules, 1995, Constitution of ‘District Level Vigilance and Monitoring Committee’ has been provided?
  
  A) Section 18

  B) Section 19

  C) Section 17

  D) Section 16
  Answer: C
  Explanation:
• Q: The Government enacted the Panchayat Extension to Scheduled Areas (PESA) Act in 1996. Which one of the following is not identified as its objective?
  
  A) To provide self-governance

  B) To recognize traditional rights

  C) To create autonomous regions

  D) To free tribal peoples from exploitation
  Answer: C
  Explanation:
• Q: The Right to Information Act of Parliament received the assent of the President of India on
  
  A) 15th May, 2005

  B) 5th June, 2005

  C) 15th June, 2005

  D) 12th October, 2005
  Answer: C
  Explanation:
• Q: Which one of the following statements is true about right to information?
  
  A) It is a political right

  B) It is a constitutional right

  C) It is a legal right

  D) It is a social right
  Answer:
  Explanation:
• Q: Right to Information Act was passed in the year.
  
  A) 2001

  B) 2004

  C) 2005

  D) 2002
  Answer: C
  Explanation:
• Q: Consider the following statements about the ‘Right to Information (RTI) Act, 2005’ and select one which has not been provided for or is specially exempted.
  
  A) It is not applicable in the State of Jammu and Kashmir

  B) An applicant making request for information will have to give reasons for seeking information

  C) Removal of Chief Information Commissioner

  D) Every Information Commissioner shall hold office for a term of 5 years or until the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier
  Answer: B
  Explanation:
• Q: Which of the following is related to Right to Information Act, 2005?
  
  A) Lily Thomas Vs. Union of India

  B) Nandini Sundar Vs. State of Chhattisgarh

  C) Namit Sharma Vs. Union of India

  D) None of the above
  Answer: B
  Explanation:
• Q: The objective of Right to Information Act is to
  
  A) Secure access to information from Public authorities

  B) Provide information to the public by a person who has the information

  C) Provide information by Government on a public place

  D) Secure information by police from culprits
  Answer: B
  Explanation:
• Q: Which High Court has said in its important decision that “the R.T.I. applicant should tell the reason for asking information under Right to Information”?
  
  A) Calcutta High Court

  B) Bombay High Court

  C) Allahabad High Court

  D) Madras High Court
  Answer: C
  Explanation:
• Q: Under the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, who shall be the authority to initiate the process for determining the nature and extent of individual or community forest rights or both?
  
  A) State Forest Department

  B) District Collector/Deputy Commissioner

  C) Tahsildar/Block Development Officer/Mandal Revenue Officer

  D) Gram Sabha
  Answer: A
  Explanation:
• Q: Which one of the following statements with respect to the Land Acquisition Act, 1894 is not true?
  
  A) It was made by the British rulers

  B) Its purpose was to help the process of land reforms in India

  C) It has been replaced by another Act of India’s Parliament

  D) Its implementation had become disputed
  Answer: B
  Explanation:
• Q: The Prevention of Money Laundering Act came into inforce in India during
  
  A) 1998

  B) 1999

  C) 2001

  D) 2005
  Answer: D
  Explanation:
• Q: With reference to consumers rights/privileges under the provisions of law in India, which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?1. Consumers are empowered to take samples for food testing. 2. When a consumer files a complaint in any Consumer Forum, no fee is required to be paid. 3. In the case of death of a consumer, his/her legal heir can file a complaint in the Consumer Forum on his/her behalf. Select the correct answer using the code given below. [IAS (Pre) 2012]
  
  A) Only 1

  B) Only 2 and 3

  C) Only 1 and 3

  D) 1, 2 and 3
  Answer: D
  Explanation:
• Q: With reference to the ‘Prohibition of Benami Property Transactions Act, 1988 (PBPT Act)’, consider the following statements. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
  
  A) Only 1

  B) Only 2

  C) Only 1 and 3

  D) Only 2 and 3
  Answer: A
  Explanation:
• Q: Assertion (A): The Right to Information Act has in general been responsible for increasing the sense of responsibility in bureaucracy. Reason (R): It still has miles to go to create the desired impact. Select the correct answer from the code given below.
  
  A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

  B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

  C) (A) is true, but (R) is false

  D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
  Answer: B
  Explanation:
• Q: The National Green Tribunal Act, 2010 was enacted in consonance with which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India?1. The right to a healthy environment, construed as a part of Right to life under Article 21. 2. Provision of grants for raising the level of administration in the scheduled Tribes under Article 275 (1). 3. Power and functions of Gram Sabha as mentioned under Article 243(A). Select the correct answer using the code given below. [IAS (Pre) 2012]
  
  A) Only 1

  B) Only 2 and 3

  C) Only 1 and 3

  D) 1, 2 and 3
  Answer: D
  Explanation: